Software Engineering MCQ - Multiple Choice Question and Answer Software Engineering MCQ with detailed explanation for interview, entrance and competitive exams. Explanation are given for understanding. Download Objective type questions of Software Engineering PDF Visit our PDF store. Solution Manual (Download Only) For Software Engineering: A Practitioner’s Approach 9th Edition By Pressman ISBN10:,ISBN13: 976 $ 100.00 $ 50.00 Solution Manual (Download Only) For Software Engineering: A Practitioner’s Approach 9th Edition By Roger Pressman,Bruce Maxim,ISBN10:,ISBN13: 976.
The Below List 50 top Real Time Linux Multiple choice Questions and answers for freshers and experienced pdf free download
Linux Multiple choice Questions and Answers List
1. Maximum how long can a Linux filename be?
A. 128 bytes
B. 255 bytes
C. 32 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Ans: B
A. 128 bytes
B. 255 bytes
C. 32 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Ans: B
2. Which combination of keys is used to exit from terminal?
A. Ctrl + t
B. Ctrl + z
C. Ctrl + d
D. Ctrl + e
Ans: C
A. Ctrl + t
B. Ctrl + z
C. Ctrl + d
D. Ctrl + e
Ans: C
3. Which command(s) is/are used to get help about a command in Linux?
A. info
B. man
C. None of these
D. Both a and b
Ans: A&B
A. info
B. man
C. None of these
D. Both a and b
Ans: A&B
4. Which of the following OS is not based on Linux?
A. Ubuntu
B. Redhat
C. CentOs
D. BSD
Ans: D
A. Ubuntu
B. Redhat
C. CentOs
D. BSD
Ans: D
5. Which command is used to get the kernel version in Linux?
A. uname -r
B. kernel
C. uname -n
D. uname -s
Ans: A
A. uname -r
B. kernel
C. uname -n
D. uname -s
Ans: A
6. Which command is used to list all the files in your current directory(including hidden)?
A. ls -l
B. ls -t
C. ls -a
D. ls -i
Ans: C
A. ls -l
B. ls -t
C. ls -a
D. ls -i
Ans: C
7. Which command is/are used to remove directory in Linux?
A. rmdir
B. rm -r
C. only b
D. Both a and b
Ans: D
A. rmdir
B. rm -r
C. only b
D. Both a and b
Ans: D
8. Which key combination is used to see all the hidden files in Nautilus file manager?
A. Ctrl + Shift + h
B. Ctrl + h
C. Ctrl + Alt + h
D. None of the above
Ans: B
A. Ctrl + Shift + h
B. Ctrl + h
C. Ctrl + Alt + h
D. None of the above
Ans: B
9. Which of the following command is used to create file in Linux?
A. touch
B. cat
C. echo
D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. touch
B. cat
C. echo
D. All of the above
Ans: D
10. In Linux everything stored as a
A. file
B. directory
C. executables
D. None of the above
Ans: A
A. file
B. directory
C. executables
D. None of the above
Ans: A
11. Which of the following is not a valid login shell in Linux?
A. C shell
B. Net Shell
C. Bash Shell
D. Z shell
Ans: B
A. C shell
B. Net Shell
C. Bash Shell
D. Z shell
Ans: B
12. Which command is used to record session in Linux?
A. script
B. session
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans: A
A. script
B. session
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans: A
13. Which of the following command can be used as an alternative to echo command?
A. print
B. printr
C. printf
D. none of these
Ans: C
A. print
B. printr
C. printf
D. none of these
Ans: C
14. Which command is used to change password of your Linux system?
A. password
B. pass
C. change -p
D. passwd
Ans: D
A. password
B. pass
C. change -p
D. passwd
Ans: D
15. Which command is used see the list of users who are currently logged-in?
A. login
B. users
C. who
D. which
Ans: C
A. login
B. users
C. who
D. which
Ans: C
16. Which directory in Linux contains all the config file of the system?
A. /etc
B. /var
C. /lib
D. /bin
Ans: A
A. /etc
B. /var
C. /lib
D. /bin
Ans: A
17. Which of the following command is used to know last shutdown/reboot date and time?
A. last
B. lastlogin
C. lastreboot
D. lastshutdown
Ans: A
A. last
B. lastlogin
C. lastreboot
D. lastshutdown
Ans: A
18. Which of the following command is used to count number of lines in a file?
A. wc -l
B. wc -c
C. wc -w
D. None of these
Ans: A
A. wc -l
B. wc -c
C. wc -w
D. None of these
Ans: A
19. Which of the following statement is incorrect about /bin and /sbin directory?
A. /sbin contain only binaries essential for booting, restoring,
Recovering, and/or repairing the system in addition to the binaries in /bin.
B. There is no difference between /bin and /sbin, they are just two directories
C. /bin contains commands that may be used by both the system administrator and by users, but which are required when no other filesystems are mounted.
D. Utilities used for system administration are stored in /sbin.
Ans: B
A. /sbin contain only binaries essential for booting, restoring,
Recovering, and/or repairing the system in addition to the binaries in /bin.
B. There is no difference between /bin and /sbin, they are just two directories
C. /bin contains commands that may be used by both the system administrator and by users, but which are required when no other filesystems are mounted.
D. Utilities used for system administration are stored in /sbin.
Ans: B
20. Which of the following command(s) is/are used to reboot a Linux system?
A. shutdown -h
B. reboot
C. init 6
D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. shutdown -h
B. reboot
C. init 6
D. All of the above
Ans: D
21. Total no of run levels in a Linux system?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 8
Ans: B
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 8
Ans: B
22. Which command is used to copy entire directory?
A. cp -r
B. cp -i
C. cp
D. none of these
Ans: A
A. cp -r
B. cp -i
C. cp
D. none of these
Ans: A
23. Suppose I am in /etc directory and I want to go to my home directory which command should I use?
A. cd
B. cd ~
C. Both A and B
D. none of these
Ans: C
A. cd
B. cd ~
C. Both A and B
D. none of these
Ans: C
24. Which special character should be avoided during naming a file?
A. .(dot)
B. $
C. _(underscore)
D. -(Hyphen)
Ans: D
A. .(dot)
B. $
C. _(underscore)
D. -(Hyphen)
Ans: D
25. Which of the following is relative path to /home/sandeep directory?
A. $ cd Desktop/abc
B. $ cd Downloads/abc
C. Both a and b
D. $ cd /etc
Ans: C
A. $ cd Desktop/abc
B. $ cd Downloads/abc
C. Both a and b
D. $ cd /etc
Ans: C
26. Suppose currently I am in /home/sandeep/Downloads/abc. After executing cd ../.., where am I now?
A. /home/sandeep
B. /home/sandeep/Downloads
C. /home
D. None of these
Ans: A
A. /home/sandeep
B. /home/sandeep/Downloads
C. /home
D. None of these
Ans: A
27. Suppose I am in /etc directoy, after executing cd .(single dot), where am I now?
A. /etc
B. /(root)
C. /home
D. None of these
Ans: A
A. /etc
B. /(root)
C. /home
D. None of these
Ans: A
28. what is the purpose of -i in rm -i command?
A. It will ask for confirmation before every deletion.
B. It just an extra option
Ans: A
A. It will ask for confirmation before every deletion.
B. It just an extra option
Ans: A
29. mv command can be used to ?
A. Move the file to different directory.
B. Renaming a file
C. Both a and b.
D. Only a.
Ans: C
A. Move the file to different directory.
B. Renaming a file
C. Both a and b.
D. Only a.
Ans: C
30. Which of the following command is used to display content of a file in octal format?
A. octal
B. cat
C. oct
D. od
Ans: D
A. octal
B. cat
C. oct
D. od
Ans: D
31. In Linux which of following command do you use to know the purpose of a command?
A. which
B. whatis
C. what
D. purpose
Ans: B
A. which
B. whatis
C. what
D. purpose
Ans: B
32. What is the process id of init process?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1
Ans: D
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1
Ans: D
33. Suppose I have made some changes in my Php.ini file and I want to restart my Apache server, which of following command should I use?
A. sudo service apache2 restart
B. sudo /etc/init.d/apache2 restart
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
A. sudo service apache2 restart
B. sudo /etc/init.d/apache2 restart
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
34. Which command is used to show process hierarchy in tree format?
A. ps -tree
B. pstree
C. ps -t
D. none of these
Ans: B
A. ps -tree
B. pstree
C. ps -t
D. none of these
Ans: B
35. Which of the following command is used to see the content of tar(backup.tar) file without extracting it?
A. tar -xvf backup.tar
B. tar -svf backup.tar
C. tar -tvf backup.tar
D. none of these
Ans: C
A. tar -xvf backup.tar
B. tar -svf backup.tar
C. tar -tvf backup.tar
D. none of these
Ans: C
36. Which command is used to execute the last command you have executed?
A. !!
B. !-1
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
A. !!
B. !-1
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
37. What is the purpose of id command?
A. Print effective and real UID
B. Print effective and real GID
C. Print effective and real UID and GID
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Print effective and real UID
B. Print effective and real GID
C. Print effective and real UID and GID
D. None of these
Ans: C
38. Which command is used to print the login shell of an user?
A. echo $SHELL
B. echo $LOGIN
C. echo $LSHELL
D. None of the Above
Ans: A
A. echo $SHELL
B. echo $LOGIN
C. echo $LSHELL
D. None of the Above
Ans: A
39. Which of the following command return the exit status of last command?
A. $!
B. $$
C. $?
D. $#
Ans: C
A. $!
B. $$
C. $?
D. $#
Ans: C
40. which command is used to print the current working direcotry?
A. pwd
B. echo $PWD
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
A. pwd
B. echo $PWD
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
Ans: C
41. What is ppid(parent process id) of daemon process in Linux ?
A. any arbitrary number
B. 1
Ans: B
A. any arbitrary number
B. 1
Ans: B
42. What is context switch?
A. Process switches from user mode to kernel mode
B. Process switches from kernel mode to user mode
C. Kernel switches from one process to another process
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Process switches from user mode to kernel mode
B. Process switches from kernel mode to user mode
C. Kernel switches from one process to another process
D. None of these
Ans: C
43. Maximum number of processes exist in Linux system ?
A. 32768
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 16384
Ans: A
A. 32768
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 16384
Ans: A
44. Which of the following command keep a process running even after you logout from your shell?
A. &
B. nohup
C. bg
D. hup
Ans: B
A. &
B. nohup
C. bg
D. hup
Ans: B
45. What is the range of nice number in linux system ?
A. 0 to 19
B. -20 to 19
C. -20 to 0
D. -10 to 10
Ans: B
A. 0 to 19
B. -20 to 19
C. -20 to 0
D. -10 to 10
Ans: B
46. On success fork return ______ to parent process ?
A. 0
B. 1
C. parent process id
D. child process Id
Ans: D
A. 0
B. 1
C. parent process id
D. child process Id
Ans: D
47. Which of the following command kill all the process including shell ?
A. kill kill 0
B. kill -9 kill 0
C. kill -s kill 0
D. Both B and C
Ans: D
A. kill kill 0
B. kill -9 kill 0
C. kill -s kill 0
D. Both B and C
Ans: D
48. Which of the following statement is true ?
A. echo $$ return PID of login shell and echo $? return status of last command
B. echo $$ return status of last command and echo $? return PID of login shell
C. echo $$ and echo $? return some integer value of no significance
D. All of the statements are false
Ans: A
A. echo $$ return PID of login shell and echo $? return status of last command
B. echo $$ return status of last command and echo $? return PID of login shell
C. echo $$ and echo $? return some integer value of no significance
D. All of the statements are false
Ans: A
49. Priority of the process can be changed using which of the following command ?
A. nice
B. chpriority
C. renice
D. Not allowed to change process priority
Ans: C
A. nice
B. chpriority
C. renice
D. Not allowed to change process priority
Ans: C
50. In _______ state of a process, the process will be terminated and the information will still be available in the process table.
A. Interruptible
B. Uninterruptible
C. Zombie
D. Running
Ans: C
A. Interruptible
B. Uninterruptible
C. Zombie
D. Running
Ans: C
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Multiple Choice Questions :-
1) What are the characteristics of software?
a. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
b. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
c. Software can be custom built or custom build.
d. All mentioned above
b. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
c. Software can be custom built or custom build.
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
2) Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?
a. System software
b. Application software
c. Scientific software
d. None of the above.
b. Application software
c. Scientific software
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: System software
3) Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach for the development, operation and maintenance of software.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
4) RAD Software process model stands for _____ .
a. Rapid Application Development.
b. Relative Application Development.
c. Rapid Application Design.
d. Recent Application Development.
b. Relative Application Development.
c. Rapid Application Design.
d. Recent Application Development.
ANSWER: Rapid Application Development.
5) Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains _________.
a. Project planning
b. Scope management
c. Project estimation
d. All mentioned above
b. Scope management
c. Project estimation
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
6) COCOMO stands for ______ .
a. COnsumed COst MOdel
b. COnstructive COst MOdel
c. COmmon COntrol MOdel
d. COmposition COst MOdel
b. COnstructive COst MOdel
c. COmmon COntrol MOdel
d. COmposition COst MOdel
ANSWER: COnstructive COst MOdel
7) Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
a. Functional Requirement.
b. Nonfunctional Requirement.
c. Goals of implementation.
d. Algorithm for software implementation.
b. Nonfunctional Requirement.
c. Goals of implementation.
d. Algorithm for software implementation.
ANSWER: Algorithm for software implementation.
8) What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
a. Spiral model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model
ANSWER: Waterfall model
9) Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand, identifying and addressing the impact of project on organization and personnel etc?
a. Software Design
b. Feasibility Study
c. Requirement Gathering
d. System Analysis
b. Feasibility Study
c. Requirement Gathering
d. System Analysis
ANSWER: System Analysis
10) Which design identifies the software as a system with many components interacting with each other?
a. Architectural design
b. High-level design
c. Detailed design
d. Both B & C
b. High-level design
c. Detailed design
d. Both B & C
ANSWER: Architectural design
11) Software consists of ______ .
a. Set of instructions + operating procedures
b. Programs + documentation + operating procedures
c. Programs + hardware manuals
d. Set of programs
b. Programs + documentation + operating procedures
c. Programs + hardware manuals
d. Set of programs
ANSWER: Programs + documentation + operating procedures
12) Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
a. Quality management
b. Risk management
c. Performance management
d. Efficiency management
b. Risk management
c. Performance management
d. Efficiency management
ANSWER: Risk management
13) If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct _____ .
a. Unambiguous
b. Consistent
c. Verifiable
d. None of the above
b. Consistent
c. Verifiable
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Unambiguous
14) Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
a. Requirements elicitation
b. Requirements analysis
c. Requirements design
d. Requirements documentation
b. Requirements analysis
c. Requirements design
d. Requirements documentation
ANSWER: Requirements design
15) FAST stands for ________ .
a. Functional Application Specification Technique
b. Fast Application Specification Technique
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d. None of the above
b. Fast Application Specification Technique
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Facilitated Application Specification Technique
16) The level at which the software uses scarce resources is ______ .
a. Reliability
b. Efficiency
c. Portability
d. All of the above
b. Efficiency
c. Portability
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Efficiency
17) Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called __________ .
a. Adaptive maintenance
b. Corrective maintenance
c. Perfective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
b. Corrective maintenance
c. Perfective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Adaptive maintenance
18) If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is _________ .
a. Verifiable
b. Traceable
c. Modifiable
d. Complete
b. Traceable
c. Modifiable
d. Complete
ANSWER: Verifiable
19) Aggregation represents ______ .
a. is_a relationship
b. part_of relationship
c. composed_of relationship
d. none of above
b. part_of relationship
c. composed_of relationship
d. none of above
ANSWER: composed_of relationship
20) If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as_____ .
a. RE = P/L
b. RE = P + L
c. RE = P*L
d. RE = 2* P *L
b. RE = P + L
c. RE = P*L
d. RE = 2* P *L
ANSWER: RE = P*L
21) Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are _____ .
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 28
b. 20
c. 25
d. 28
ANSWER: 20
22) ER model shows the _______ .
a. Static view
b. Functional view
c. Dynamic view
d. All the above
b. Functional view
c. Dynamic view
d. All the above
ANSWER: Static view
23) IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for _______ .
a. Software Requirement Specification
b. Software design
c. Testing
d. Both (A) and (B)
b. Software design
c. Testing
d. Both (A) and (B)
ANSWER: Software Requirement Specification
24) One of the fault base testing techniques is ______ .
a. Unit Testing
b. Beta Testing
c. Stress Testing
d. Mutation Testing
b. Beta Testing
c. Stress Testing
d. Mutation Testing
ANSWER: Mutation Testing
25) If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with ______.
a. Object Oriented Analysis
b. Object Oriented Design
c. Object Oriented Analysis and Design
d. None of the above
b. Object Oriented Design
c. Object Oriented Analysis and Design
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Object Oriented Analysis
26) In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a. ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False
b. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c. ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
d. ii, iii and iv are True; i is false
b. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c. ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
d. ii, iii and iv are True; i is false
ANSWER: i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
27) Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?
a. Creating test suites from the test cases
b. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c. Comparing actual results
d. Designing the Tests
b. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c. Comparing actual results
d. Designing the Tests
ANSWER: Designing the Tests
28) The Test Cases Derived from use cases _______ .
a. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
b. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system.
c. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
d. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
b. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system.
c. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
d. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
ANSWER: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
29) What can static analysis NOT find?
a. The use of a variable before it has been defined.
b. Unreachable (“dead”) code.
c. Memory leaks.
d. Array bound violations.
b. Unreachable (“dead”) code.
c. Memory leaks.
d. Array bound violations.
ANSWER: Memory leaks.
30) Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed ?
a. HR Plan
b. Manager Plan
c. Team Plan
d. Staff Development Plan
b. Manager Plan
c. Team Plan
d. Staff Development Plan
ANSWER: Staff Development Plan
31) Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of _______ .
a. Acceptance testing
b. Integration testing
c. System Testing
d. Unit testing
b. Integration testing
c. System Testing
d. Unit testing
ANSWER: Acceptance testing
32) The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is ______ .
a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
ANSWER: Evolutionary Development Model
33) A COCOMO model is ________ .
a. Common Cost Estimation Model.
b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
ANSWER: Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
34) SRD stands for _______ .
a. Software Requirements Definition
b. Structured Requirements Definition
c. Software Requirements Diagram
d. Structured Requirements Diagram
b. Structured Requirements Definition
c. Software Requirements Diagram
d. Structured Requirements Diagram
ANSWER: Structured Requirements Definition
35) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called _______ .
a. CASE Tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools
36) Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?
a. Design
b. Detailed design
c. Coding
d. All mentioned above
b. Detailed design
c. Coding
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
37) Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an argument?
a. Strict evaluation
b. Recursion
c. Calculus
d. Pure functions
b. Recursion
c. Calculus
d. Pure functions
ANSWER: Strict evaluation
38) Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk monitoring
c. Risk timing
d. Contingency planning
b. Risk monitoring
c. Risk timing
d. Contingency planning
ANSWER: Risk timing
39) Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated from past experience are called _____ .
a. Business risks
b. Predictable risks
c. Project risks
d. Technical risks
b. Predictable risks
c. Project risks
d. Technical risks
ANSWER: Predictable risks
40) Organization can have in-house inspection, direct involvement of users and release of beta version are few of them and it also includes usability, compatibility, user acceptance etc. is called ______ .
a. Task analysis
b. GUI requirement gathering
c. GUI design & implementation
d. Testing
b. GUI requirement gathering
c. GUI design & implementation
d. Testing
ANSWER: Testing
41) Which project is undertaken as a consequence of a specific customer request?
a. Concept development projects
b. Application enhancement projects
c. New application development projects
d. Application maintenance projects
b. Application enhancement projects
c. New application development projects
d. Application maintenance projects
ANSWER: New application development projects
42) Requirement engineering process includes which of these steps?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement specification & Validation
d. All mentioned above
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement specification & Validation
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
43) Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that may cause an entire system to fall.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
44) Give the disadvantages of modularization.
a. Smaller components are easier to maintain
b. Program can be divided based on functional aspects
c. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program
d. None of the above
b. Program can be divided based on functional aspects
c. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program
d. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above
45) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?
a. People, performance, payment, product
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: People, product, process, project
46) Give the Real-world factors affecting maintenance Cost.
a. As technology advances, it becomes costly to maintain old software.
b. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years.
c. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error method to rectify problem.
d. All mentioned above
b. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years.
c. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error method to rectify problem.
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
47) Mention any two indirect measures of product.
a. Quality
b. Efficiency
c. Accuracy
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
b. Efficiency
c. Accuracy
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both A and B
48) Which testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. Thread-based testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Regression testing
49) State if the following are true for Project Management.
During Project Scope management, it is necessary to –
1) Define the scope
2) Decide its verification and control
3) Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management.
4) Verify the scope
2) Decide its verification and control
3) Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management.
4) Verify the scope
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
50) Software Requirement Specification (SRS) is also known as specification of _______.
a. White box testing
b. Acceptance testing
c. Integrated testing
d. Black box testing
b. Acceptance testing
c. Integrated testing
d. Black box testing
ANSWER: Black box testing
1) Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software process?
a. Customers
b. End-users
c. Project managers
d. All of the above.
b. End-users
c. Project managers
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: All of the above.
2) Software components provide interfaces, which can be used to establish communication among different components.
a. Yes
b. No
b. No
ANSWER: Yes
3) Which SDLC activity does the user initiates the request for a desired software product?
a. Requirement gathering
b. Implementation
c. Disposition
d. Communication
b. Implementation
c. Disposition
d. Communication
ANSWER: Communication
4) In Risk management process what makes a note of all possible risks, that may occur in the project?
a. Manage
b. Monitor
c. Categorize
d. Identification
b. Monitor
c. Categorize
d. Identification
ANSWER: Identification
5) What is a measure of how well a computer system facilities learning?
a. Usability
b. Functionality
c. Reliability
d. None of the above
b. Functionality
c. Reliability
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Usability
6) The process togather the software requirements from Client, Analyze and Document is known as ______ .
a. Requirement engineering process
b. Requirement elicitation process
c. User interface requirements
d. Software system analyst
b. Requirement elicitation process
c. User interface requirements
d. Software system analyst
ANSWER: Requirement engineering process
7) Refinement is actually a process of elaboration.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
8) Who manages the effects of change throughout the software process?
a. Software project tracking and control
b. Software configuration management
c. Measurement
d. Technical reviews
b. Software configuration management
c. Measurement
d. Technical reviews
ANSWER: Software configuration management
9) When elements of module are grouped together that are executed sequentially in order to perform a task, is called ______ .
a. Procedural cohesion
b. Logical cohesion
c. Emporal cohesion
d. Co-incidental cohesion
b. Logical cohesion
c. Emporal cohesion
d. Co-incidental cohesion
ANSWER: Procedural cohesion
10) Which coupling is also known as “Global coupling”?
a. Content coupling
b. Stamp coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
b. Stamp coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
ANSWER: Common coupling
11) What is the detailed sequence of steps that describes the interaction between the user and the application?
a. Scenario scripts
b. Support classes
c. Key classes
d. Subsystems
b. Support classes
c. Key classes
d. Subsystems
ANSWER: Scenario scripts
12) Which risks identify Potential Design, Implementation, Interface, Verification and Maintenance Problems?
a. Project risk
b. Business risk
c. Technical risk
d. Schedule risk
b. Business risk
c. Technical risk
d. Schedule risk
ANSWER: Technical risk
13) Abbreviate the term BSS.
a. Box Structure Specification
b. Box Statistical Specification
c. Box Statistical System
d. Box Structure Sampling
b. Box Statistical Specification
c. Box Statistical System
d. Box Structure Sampling
ANSWER: Box Structure Specification
14) What is the testing to ensure the WebApp properly interfaces with other applications or databases?
a. Compatibility
b. Interoperability
c. Performance
d. Security
b. Interoperability
c. Performance
d. Security
ANSWER: Interoperability
15) Which Variation control in the context of software engineering involves controlling variation?
a. Process applied
b. Resources expended
c. Product quality attributes
d. All mentioned above
b. Resources expended
c. Product quality attributes
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
16) Which classes represent data stores (e.g., a database) that will persist beyond the execution of the software?
a. Process classes
b. System classes
c. Persistent classes
d. User interface classes
b. System classes
c. Persistent classes
d. User interface classes
ANSWER: Persistent classes
17) Abbreviate the term CMMI.
a. Capability Maturity Model Integration
b. Capability Model Maturity Integration
c. Capability Maturity Model Instructions
d. Capability Model Maturity Instructions
b. Capability Model Maturity Integration
c. Capability Maturity Model Instructions
d. Capability Model Maturity Instructions
ANSWER: Capability Maturity Model Integration
18) First level of prototype is evaluated by ______ .
a. Developer
b. Tester
c. User
d. System Analyst
b. Tester
c. User
d. System Analyst
ANSWER: User
19) Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
d. Tools
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
d. Tools
ANSWER: Manufacturing
20) Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a. Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above.
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Direct measures
21) What is the main aim of Software engineering?
a. Reliable software
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
d. None of the above
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Reliable and cost effective software
22) Choose the correct option according to the given statement.
Statement 1: Software is a physical rather than a logical system element.
Statement 2: Computer software is the product that software engineers design and build.
Statement 3: Software is a logical rather than a physical system element.
Statement 4: Software is a set of application programs that are built by software engineers.
Statement 2: Computer software is the product that software engineers design and build.
Statement 3: Software is a logical rather than a physical system element.
Statement 4: Software is a set of application programs that are built by software engineers.
a. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
b. Only Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
c. Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
d. All statements are correct
b. Only Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
c. Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
d. All statements are correct
ANSWER: Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
23) You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the risk of software failure?
a. Request a large budget
b. You will increase the team size
c. Track progress
d. None of the above.
b. You will increase the team size
c. Track progress
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Track progress
24) Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software engineering teams. The best project team organizational model to use when handling extremely complex problems is ________ .
a. Random paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Synchronous paradigm
d. Closed paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Synchronous paradigm
d. Closed paradigm
ANSWER: Random paradigm
25) For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing
ANSWER: System Analysis
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Objective Questions with Answers
1) Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
a. Only performance.
b. Only context.
c. Information objectives, function, performance
d. None of the above.
b. Only context.
c. Information objectives, function, performance
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Information objectives, function, performance
2) Which level of sub-system is used of an application?
a. Application level
b. Component level
c. Modules level
d. None of the above
b. Component level
c. Modules level
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Component level
3) SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software engineering to develop the intended software product.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: False
4) In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
ANSWER: COCOMO
5) From the following select the correct option that is used to display the available option for selection.
a. Check-box
b. Text-box
c. Button
d. Radio-Button
b. Text-box
c. Button
d. Radio-Button
ANSWER: Radio-Button
6) CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .
a. Develop the software.
b. Improve the software process.
c. Improve the testing process.
d. All of the above.
b. Improve the software process.
c. Improve the testing process.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: Improve the software process.
7) Transformers is one of the broad category used to classify operations.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: False
8) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called as ______ .
a. CASE Tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools
9) Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
a. Requirements elicitation
b. Requirements analysis
c. Requirements design
d. Requirements documentation
b. Requirements analysis
c. Requirements design
d. Requirements documentation
ANSWER: Requirements design
10) Which of the level carries out goal, objective, work tasks, work products and other activities of the software process?
a. Performed
b. INCOMPLETE
c. Optimized
d. Quantitatively Managed
b. INCOMPLETE
c. Optimized
d. Quantitatively Managed
ANSWER: Performed
11) If you have no clue of how to improve the process for the quality software which model is used?
a. A Continuous model
b. A Staged model
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
b. A Staged model
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A Staged model
12) In Software validation, requirements can be checked against following conditions:
1) If they can be practically implemented
2) If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software
3) If there are any ambiguities
4) If they are completed
2) If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software
3) If there are any ambiguities
4) If they are completed
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
13) In OOD, the attributes(data variables) and methods( operation on the data) are bundled together is called _______ .
a. Classes
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
ANSWER: Encapsulation
14) Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is used to communicate with other modules?
a. High-level designs
b. Architectural designs
c. Detailed design
d. All mentioned above
b. Architectural designs
c. Detailed design
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: Detailed design
15) Which tools are used in Implementation, Testing and Maintenance?
a. Upper case tools
b. Lower case tools
c. Integrated case tools
d. None of the above
b. Lower case tools
c. Integrated case tools
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Lower case tools
16) Which tools are used for project planning, cost, effort estimation, project scheduling and resource planning?
a. Process modeling tools
b. Project management tools
c. Diagram tools
d. Documentation tools
b. Project management tools
c. Diagram tools
d. Documentation tools
ANSWER: Project management tools
17) Which design deals with the implementation part in which it shows a system and its sub-systems in the previous two designs?
a. Architectural design
b. High-level design
c. Detailed design
d. Both A & B
b. High-level design
c. Detailed design
d. Both A & B
ANSWER: Detailed design
18) Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and independent modules.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
19) What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
a. Defect amplification
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
d. All mentioned above
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: Defect removal efficiency
20) Cohesion metrics and coupling metrics are metrics in which level of design?
a. User interface design
b. Pattern-based design
c. Architectural design
d. Component-level design
b. Pattern-based design
c. Architectural design
d. Component-level design
ANSWER: Component-level design
21) Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?
a. Postcondition
b. Precondition
c. Invariant
d. None of the above
b. Precondition
c. Invariant
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Precondition
22) Which subsystem implements a repository that encompasses the following elements,
1) Content database
2) Database capabilities
3) Configuration management functions
2) Database capabilities
3) Configuration management functions
a. The publishing subsystem
b. The management subsystem
c. The collection subsystem
d. None of the above
b. The management subsystem
c. The collection subsystem
d. None of the above
ANSWER: The management subsystem
23) Which is not a SQA activity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Integration testing
d. Unit testing
b. White box testing
c. Integration testing
d. Unit testing
ANSWER: White box testing
24) PAD is metric indicates the number of classes that can access another class attributes and a violation of encapsulation.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
25) Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
ANSWER: Abstraction
1) From the following, which software has been characterized by ‘Number Crunching’ Algorithms?
a. System software
b. Artificial intelligence software
c. Embedded software
d. Engineering and scientific software
b. Artificial intelligence software
c. Embedded software
d. Engineering and scientific software
ANSWER: Engineering and scientific software
2) IEEE provides a standard as IEEE 830-1993. For which activity this standard is recommended standard?
a. Software requirement specification.
b. Software design.
c. Testing.
d. Both a and b
b. Software design.
c. Testing.
d. Both a and b
ANSWER: Software requirement specification.
3) A generic process framework for software engineering encompasses five activities. What are those activities?
a. Communication, risk management, measurement, production, deployment.
b. Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment.
c. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
d. None of the above.
b. Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment.
c. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment.
4) Who deliver the technical skills that are necessary to engineer for a product or an application?
a. Project managers
b. Practitioners
c. Customers
d. End users
b. Practitioners
c. Customers
d. End users
ANSWER: Practitioners
5) Project risk factor is considered in which model?
a. Spiral model.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Spiral model.
6) What is a child window that contains message for the user and request for some action to be taken?
a. Dialogue box
b. Text-Box
c. Check-Box
d. Radio Button
b. Text-Box
c. Check-Box
d. Radio Button
ANSWER: Dialogue box
7) A Project can be characterized as _____ .
a. Every project may not have a unique and distinct goal.
b. Project is routine activity or day-to-day operations.
c. Project does not comes with a start time and end time.
d. All mentioned above.
e. None of the above.
ANSWER: None of the above.
b. Project is routine activity or day-to-day operations.
c. Project does not comes with a start time and end time.
d. All mentioned above.
e. None of the above.
ANSWER: None of the above.
8) Which model is not suitable for large software projects but good one for learning and experimenting?
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. Iterative model
d. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. Iterative model
d. Waterfall model
ANSWER: Big Bang model
9) Which includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix the problems, that are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?
a. Perfective maintenance
b. Adaptive maintenance
c. Corrective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
b. Adaptive maintenance
c. Corrective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Corrective maintenance
10) Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules, responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is called as ______ .
a. W3HH principle
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
d. None of the above.
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: W5HH principle
11) The objective for formal technical review is to core errors in software work products.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: False
12) CASE tools are set of automated software application programs, that are not used to support, accelerate and smoothen the SDLC activities.
a. Yes
b. No
b. No
ANSWER: No
13) From the following give three major categories of risk,
1) Schedule risk
2) Project risk
3) Technical risk
4) Business risk
1) Schedule risk
2) Project risk
3) Technical risk
4) Business risk
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
ANSWER: 2,3 and 4
14) Activities and action taken on the data are represented by circle or round-edged rectangles is called _____ .
a. Entities
b. Process
c. Data storage
d. Data flow
b. Process
c. Data storage
d. Data flow
ANSWER: Process
15) The six sigma for software engineering what gives the existing process and its output to determine the current quality performance?
a. Define
b. Analyze
c. Measure
d. None of the above
b. Analyze
c. Measure
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Measure
16) Which tools are helpful in all the stages of SDLC, for requirement gathering to testing and documentation?
a. Upper case tools
b. Lower case tools
c. Integrated case tools
d. None of the above
b. Lower case tools
c. Integrated case tools
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Integrated case tools
17) OOD languages provide a mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in arguments, and that can be assigned to the same name is called _____ .
![Multiple Multiple](/uploads/1/2/6/2/126251006/708031943.jpg)
a. Classes
b. Object
c. Polymorphism
d. Encapsulation
b. Object
c. Polymorphism
d. Encapsulation
ANSWER: Polymorphism
18) Abbreviate the term SMI.
a. Software Maturity Index
b. Software Model Instruction
c. Software Maturity Instruction
d. Software Model Index
b. Software Model Instruction
c. Software Maturity Instruction
d. Software Model Index
ANSWER: Software Maturity Index
19) What computer-based system can have a profound effect on the design that is chosen and also the implementation approach will be applied?
a. Scenario-based elements
b. Class-based elements
c. Behavioural elements
d. Flow-oriented elements
b. Class-based elements
c. Behavioural elements
d. Flow-oriented elements
ANSWER: Behavioural elements
20) SRS is a document created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from various stakeholders.
a. Yes
b. No
b. No
ANSWER: Yes
21) Which structures in Organizational Paradigms on a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?
a. Closed paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Random paradigm
d. Synchronous paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Random paradigm
d. Synchronous paradigm
ANSWER: Random paradigm
22) Give the name to diagram that represents the flow of activities described by the use cases and at the same time the captors are involved in UML .
a. State diagram
b. Swim lane diagram
c. Activity diagram
d. Component diagram
b. Swim lane diagram
c. Activity diagram
d. Component diagram
ANSWER: Swim lane diagram
23) Which phase is refers to the support phase of software development?
a. Acceptance Phase.
b. Testing.
c. Maintenance.
d. None of the above.
b. Testing.
c. Maintenance.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Maintenance.
24) Which model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?
a. Iterative Development
b. Linear Sequential Development
c. RAD Model.
d. Incremental Development
b. Linear Sequential Development
c. RAD Model.
d. Incremental Development
ANSWER: Linear Sequential Development
25) What is the average effective global activity rate in an evolving E-type system is invariant over the lifetime of the product?
a. Self-regulation
b. Reducing quality
c. Feedback systems
d. Organizational stability
b. Reducing quality
c. Feedback systems
d. Organizational stability
ANSWER: Organizational stability
1) Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from Various stakeholders?
a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement validation
c. Feasibility study
d. Requirement Gathering
b. Software requirement validation
c. Feasibility study
d. Requirement Gathering
ANSWER: Software requirement specification
2) Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement gathering
c. Software requirement specification
d. Software requirement validation
b. Requirement gathering
c. Software requirement specification
d. Software requirement validation
ANSWER: Feasibility study
3) The architectural model is derived from which of these sources?
A) Information about the application domain for the software to be built;
B) Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or analysis classes, their relationships and collaborations for the problem at hand;
C) The availability of architectural styles and patterns.
B) Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or analysis classes, their relationships and collaborations for the problem at hand;
C) The availability of architectural styles and patterns.
a. Both A & B
b. Both B & C
c. Both A & C
d. All mentioned above
b. Both B & C
c. Both A & C
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
4) What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model will have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?
a. Requirement quality
b. Design quality
c. Code quality
d. Quality control effectiveness
b. Design quality
c. Code quality
d. Quality control effectiveness
ANSWER: Requirement quality
5) An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties called_____ .
a. Attributes
b. Relationship
c. Domain
d. None of the above
b. Relationship
c. Domain
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Attributes
6) Waht is the most common measure for correctness?
a. Defects per KLOC
b. Errors per KLOC
c. $ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
b. Errors per KLOC
c. $ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
ANSWER: Defects per KLOC
7) Which documentation works as a key tool for software designer, developer and their test team is to carry out their respective tasks?
a. Requirement documentation
b. User documentation
c. Software design documentation
d. Technical documentation
b. User documentation
c. Software design documentation
d. Technical documentation
ANSWER: Requirement documentation
8) Which tools are used in implementation,testing and maintenance?
a. Upper case tools
b. Integrated case tools
c. Lower case tools
d. None of the above
b. Integrated case tools
c. Lower case tools
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Lower case tools
9) Which risk gives the degree of uncertainty and the project schedule will be maintained so that the product will be delivered in time?
a. Business risk
b. Technical risk
c. Schedule risk
d. Project risk
b. Technical risk
c. Schedule risk
d. Project risk
ANSWER: Schedule risk
10) You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. Company wants to develop a project. You are also involved in planning team. What will be your first step in project planning?
a. Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
b. Determine the project constraints.
c. Select the team.
d. None of the above.
b. Determine the project constraints.
c. Select the team.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
11) Configuration management is an essential part of the system maintenance. It is aided with version control tools to control versions, semi-version or patch management.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
12) Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Spiral model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Spiral model
ANSWER: V-model
13) Software project management is the process of managing all activities that are involved in software development, they are _____ .
a. Time
b. Cost
c. Quality management
d. All mentioned above
b. Cost
c. Quality management
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
14) A small picture representing an associated application, what does it mean?
a. Icon
b. Window
c. Menu
d. Cursor
b. Window
c. Menu
d. Cursor
ANSWER: Icon
15) What is the meaning of requirement elicitation in software engineering?
a. Gathering of requirement.
b. Understanding of requirement.
c. Getting the requirements from client.
d. All of the above.
b. Understanding of requirement.
c. Getting the requirements from client.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: All of the above.
16) Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?
a. Empirical Estimation Technique.
b. Heuristic Estimation Technique.
c. Analytical Estimation Technique.
d. All of the above.
b. Heuristic Estimation Technique.
c. Analytical Estimation Technique.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: All of the above.
17) The maximum number of objects that can participate in a relationship is called________ .
a. Cardinality
b. Attributes
c. Operations
d. Transformers
b. Attributes
c. Operations
d. Transformers
ANSWER: Cardinality
18) What is legacy system?
a. A legacy system refers to newer version of software.
b. A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.
c. A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
d. None of the above.
b. A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.
c. A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.
19) Which of the following cannot be applied with the software according to Software Engineering Layers?
a. Process
b. Methods
c. Manufacturing
d. None of the above.
b. Methods
c. Manufacturing
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Manufacturing
20) Which software is used to control products and systems for the consumer and industrial markets?
a. System software
b. Artificial intelligence software
c. Embedded software
d. Engineering and scientific software
b. Artificial intelligence software
c. Embedded software
d. Engineering and scientific software
ANSWER: Embedded software
21) Which software enables the program to adequately manipulate information?
a. Instructions
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Data Structures
22) Which coding element is generally omitted at the end of line?
a. Naming conventions
b. Identifying
c. Whitespace
d. Operators
b. Identifying
c. Whitespace
d. Operators
ANSWER: Whitespace
23) The rules of writing ‘if-then-else’, ‘case-switch’, ‘while-until’ and ‘for’ control flow statements are called _____ .
a. Comments
b. Functions
c. Line length and wrapping
d. Control Structure
b. Functions
c. Line length and wrapping
d. Control Structure
ANSWER: Control Structure
24) If an application allows executing multiple instances of itself, they appear on the screen as separate windows are called ______ .
a. Window
b. Tabs
c. Menu
d. Cursor
b. Tabs
c. Menu
d. Cursor
ANSWER: Tabs
25) Match the List 1 to List 2 and choose the correct option.
1. Requirement Elicitation ——- a. Module Development and integration.
2. Design——————————b. Analysis
3. Implementation——————c. Structure and behavioral
4. Maintenance ——————— d. Performance tuning.
2. Design——————————b. Analysis
3. Implementation——————c. Structure and behavioral
4. Maintenance ——————— d. Performance tuning.
a. 1-c , 2-a , 3-d , 4-b
b. 1-c , 2-a , 3-b , 4-d
c. 1-a , 2-c , 3-d , 4-b
d. 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
b. 1-c , 2-a , 3-b , 4-d
c. 1-a , 2-c , 3-d , 4-b
d. 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
ANSWER: 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
301) Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Sandwich testing
d. Thread-based testing
b. Regression testing
c. Sandwich testing
d. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Thread-based testing
302) In which elicitation process the developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software?
a. Requirement gathering
b. Organizing requirements
c. Negotiation & discussion
d. Documentation
b. Organizing requirements
c. Negotiation & discussion
d. Documentation
ANSWER: Requirement gathering
303) If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
a. Spiral model
b. Waterfall model
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above
b. Waterfall model
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Waterfall model
304) Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?
a. Structure of Software Program
b. Programming Language
c. Dependence on external environment
d. All mentioned above
e. None of the above
b. Programming Language
c. Dependence on external environment
d. All mentioned above
e. None of the above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
305) Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
306) Software process and improvement are assessed by ____.
a. ISO 9000
b. ISO 9001
c. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504)
d. Both B and C
b. ISO 9001
c. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504)
d. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both B and C
307) CASE Tool stands for.
a. Computer Aided Software Engineering
b. Component Aided Software Engineering
c. Constructive Aided Software Engineering
d. Computer Analysis Software Engineering
b. Component Aided Software Engineering
c. Constructive Aided Software Engineering
d. Computer Analysis Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
308) Software is defined as ____ .
a. Instructions
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
309) During security testing the tester plays the role of the individual who desires to______ .
a. Penetrates the system
b. Penetrates the listener
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
b. Penetrates the listener
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Penetrates the system
310) Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?
a. Budget
b. Time
c. People
d. None of the above
b. Time
c. People
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Budget
311) Which box specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?
a. State box
b. Clear box
c. Black box
d. None of the above
b. Clear box
c. Black box
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Black box
312) FAST stands for ______ .
a. Facilitated Application Software Technique.
b. Functional Application Software Technique.
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
d. None of the above.
b. Functional Application Software Technique.
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
313) Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by calculating number of function points in the software?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
ANSWER: Software size estimation
314) SDLC Models are adopted as per requirements of development process. It may vary Software-to-software to ensuring which model is suitable.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True
315) The always growing and adapting nature of software hugely depends upon the environment in which user works in ____________ .
a. Cost
b. Dynamic Nature
c. Quality Management
d. Scalability
b. Dynamic Nature
c. Quality Management
d. Scalability
ANSWER: Dynamic Nature
316) When the customer may ask for new features or functions in the software, what does it mean in Software maintenance?
a. Host modifications
b. Client requirements
c. Market conditions
d. Organization changes
b. Client requirements
c. Market conditions
d. Organization changes
ANSWER: Client requirements
317) Reliability is measured by considering processing speed, response time, resource consumption, throughput, and efficiency.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: False
318) Abbreviate the term CASE.
a. Computer Authorized Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Common Authorized Software Engineering
d. Common Aided Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Common Authorized Software Engineering
d. Common Aided Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
319) What is described by means of DFDs as studied earlier and represented in algebraic form?
a. Data flow
b. Data storage
c. Data Structures
d. Data elements
b. Data storage
c. Data Structures
d. Data elements
ANSWER: Data flow
320) Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced?
a. Size oriented
b. Function-Oriented
c. Object-Oriented
d. Use-case-Oriented
b. Function-Oriented
c. Object-Oriented
d. Use-case-Oriented
ANSWER: Size oriented
321) What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
a. The product scope is poorly defined.
b. Deadlines are unrealistic.
c. Changes are managed poorly.
d. All of the above.
b. Deadlines are unrealistic.
c. Changes are managed poorly.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: All of the above.
322) Application that generate a dialogue to get confirmation from user and to delete a file it is an example for _____ .
a. Radio-Button
b. Text-box
c. Check-box
d. Dialogue box
b. Text-box
c. Check-box
d. Dialogue box
ANSWER: Dialogue box
323) What is used for implementing the changes in existing or new requirements of user in software maintenance?
a. Preventive maintenance
b. Perfective maintenance
c. Corrective
d. Adaptive
b. Perfective maintenance
c. Corrective
d. Adaptive
ANSWER: Perfective maintenance
324) Lehman has given eight laws for software evolution and he divided software into three categories. In which category software works strictly according to defined specifications and solutions.
a. Static-type
b. Embedded-type
c. Practical-type
d. None of the above
b. Embedded-type
c. Practical-type
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Embedded-type
325) Computer software is a complete package, which includes software program, its documentation and user guide on how to use the software.
a. True
b. False
b. False
ANSWER: True